Re: the Bible, translation and gays

On Apr 16, 5:33 pm, rtdav...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
 wrote:
> I believe shegeeks post to be very heavy on insinuation but lacking in
> any convincing detail.
To begin with, I did not write the article. It's from a website and I
posted the URL (http://www.ppmcc.org/About_the_Bible.html)
at the top
of my post.

As for 'convincing detail,' explanations of the Greek words '****ea'
and 'akathartos' can easily be found by googling. My study, both on
the internet and at my church, overwhelmingly indicate that neither
term refers to the loving, longterm same-*** relation****ps of today.
'Akathartos' is translated into 'uncleaness' and '****ea' into
'fornication.' Sampling of websites:

http://www.religioustolerance.org/****ea.htm
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hom_bibl.htm
http://www.wfn.org/2000/11/msg00082.html

And I asked, in this forum and others, for inherent harms in
homo***uality and no one has given me a valid answer. Indeed, the word
'homo***ual' wasn't even in existence when the Bible was written and
translated and Jesus said nothing on gay ***, yet he railed against
all manner of sin.
--
Tara's Transgender Resources
http://tarasresources.net

Metropolitan Community Churches
http://www.mccchurch.org