In article <LOiDj.12547$hP3.338@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>,
Be.Ye.Holy.For.I.Am.Holy@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
[snip]
>The Bible says, "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves,
>and the truth is not in us."
Yes, you got that right.
>These words were written by the apostle John in I John 1:8. The Bible
>teaches that all have sinned and come short of the glory of God, and
>therefore all need a Saviour to reconcile them to God. John addressed
>this to those claiming they had no guilt, no pollution of sin, and no
>need of a Saviour.
You missed soemthing here: he was writing it to _Christians_ who believed
all
this.
> This is not referring to someone that has been born
>again through the blood of the Lamb and has been cleansed "from all
>unrighteousness" (I Jn. 1:9).
Why are you so sure of this? The whole epistle is addressed to Christians.
Why are you making such an exception fro this one verse?
>John said, "These things write I unto you, that ye sin not (I Jn.
>2:1). This message is clearly declared throughout his epistles:
>". . . the blood of Jesus Christ his Son cleanseth us from all sin." I
>Jn. 1:7.
You say it is "clearly declared", yet you miss the meaning! Why are all
these
verbs _present_ tense? What is the significance of this tense?
>"He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a
>liar, and the truth is not in him." I Jn. 2:4.
Here again: why are all these verbs _present_ tense? What is the
significance of
this tense?
>"And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins...Whosoever
>abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him,
>neither known him. Little children, let no man deceive you, he that
>doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He that
>committeth sin is of the devil, for the devil sinneth from the
>beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he
>might destroy the works of the devil. Whosoever is born of God doth
>not commit sin...In this the children of God are manifest and the
>children of the devil . . ." I Jn. 3:5-10.
Again: why are all these verbs _present_ tense? What is the significance
of this
tense? What is the meaning of the _contrast_ between all these present
tenses
and the aorist 'manifested' and 'take away'?
>The apostle's message is clear and is in accordance with other New
>Testament writers.
His is. Your interpretation of it, OTOH, is clearly contradictory to the
other
NT writers.
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Subducat se sibi ut haereat Deo
Quidquid boni habet tribuat illi a quo factus est
(Sanctus Aurelius Augustinus, Ser. 96)
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