Re: Do We Take the Bible Literally?

On Mon, 28 Jan 2008, Bart Goddard wrote:

> >>Two common errors here. First, under the
> >> hypothesis that God inspired Scripture, you
> >> still operate under the assumption that He's
> >> not really God and couldn't inspire a Bible that
> >> was for all people at all times.

The inference of the assertion "he cannot do it" from the assertion "he 
did not do it" is a fallacy. It is regularly done to prove the 
infallibility of the Bible with arguments like "don't you believe that he 
*can* do it?".

Here, the assertion is that God inspired the Bible that is for all people 
at all times". I believe that this assertion is true, but it does not 
follow from God's abilities.

In fact, God has worked with fallible men in his service throughout 
history, and it is a separate doctrine that he made an exception to this 
policy when he had the Bible written down.

> Still the same contradiction.  One either believes God is
> the Author of Scripture or not.  When you try to have it
> both ways, you're speaking nonsense.

Again a fallacy. One either believes Jesus is God or that he is man. When 
you try to have it both ways, you're speaking nonsense. One either 
believes that light is waves or that it is particles. When you try to have

it both ways, you're speaking nonsense.

The second example is but a parable which may or may not match. But the 
first is not. I do consider it reasonable that what we know about the 
Ultimate Word of God, Jesus, applies analogously to the preceding words of

God and the testimonies of the Ultimate Word.

> Cheerfully resisting change since 1959.

Having been resisting to learn anything for half a century? 
Congratulations!

-- 
Helmut Richter


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