"Zadok" <nobler@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message
news:gkNTj.793$KB3.497@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
>>
> What I find amazing about you Lars, is that you quote Daniel.
>
> But Daniel is told in Daniel 12: 4 to shut up the words, and seal the
> book.
> Even to the time of the end.
>
We ARE living in the "time of the end" now. The END is a reference to the
END of the appointed times of the nations. The Jews were concerned when
their nation would be free and idependent again. The "end of the system
of
things" or the "end of the world" was in reference to the gentile times.
So
the END occurred in 1947. Therefore, we are living in the time of the
"END
of the gentile times" (not the end of the world specifically) and thus we
understand these things now. The "great tribulation" at the hand of Gog
of
Magog, Japheths white descendants was the Nazi's who desolated "Judea",
meaning the Jews living in Eastern Europe. After this, the 1290 days
would
end and the Jews would come out of exile. The messiah would arrive 45
years
later; 45 years after the new Jewish state is set up, thus 1992-1993.
> But you can tell us exactly what Daniel is saying, even though the end
has
> not arrived??
>
The END has arrived, it was 1947. You are confused because you think the
"end" is Armageddon here, but it is not. It is the END of the "appointed
times of the nations" (Luke 21) that is the context in Jesus' sermon for
the
"end of the system of things":
24 and they will fall by the edge of the sword and be led captive into all
the nations; and Jerusalem will be trampled on by the nations, until the
APPOINTED TIMES OF THE NATIONS ARE FULFILLED."
The "system of things" the Jews were then living unde was the time of the
gentiles. When the times of the gentiles ends then the messiah would
arrive
45 years later. You think the "end" is the end of the world, Amrageddon.
But that's just a misconception. So, again, the END of the "appointed
times of the nations" which is the same as the "END of the system of
things"
occurs when the Jews are restored to their homeland, which occurred in
1947.
So at least by 1947 or later these things would be revealed. We are
living
int he time of the end.
When it says, the "good news" will be preached first and THEN the end will
come, it had reference to one Christian sect who would be preaching "good
news" in the end times. This group would not show up until 1886, ending
the
"2300 evenings and mornings" for the temple "in its right condition. It
would thus grow from a small handful of individuals into an international
organization by the time 1947 rolls around. The "good news of the
kingdom"
is about eternal life and a paradise earth. This message would reach
around
the world of Christendom by 1947, so we can presume that this was
fulfilled
by 1947. It has to be fullfilled by some organization with a missionary
or
preaching campaign that is an international religion, not just some local
church. How many international organizations are there that do missionary
work who were active in 1947?
> Why is that, if it was sealed until the end of time??
>
It was not sealed until the end of time. Just until the "time of the end"
of the gentile times. Just until 1947. You have misread the Bible, so of
course you don't realize how this was fulfilled. Now you do.
> OH DAMN!! You can read it because the end of time has happened already.
Yes, the end of the appointed times of the nation HAS occurred, which was
1947. Not 70 AD.
> What does Luke say??
>
He says the "appointed times of the nations" continues after the fall of
Jerusalem, that's what he says.
> Why would we care??
>
Um, we don't want God to kill us at Armgeddon, maybe? Just a wild guess.
> Luke is a Gentile, who never knew Jesus, never met Jesus, and never
> studied > with Jesus.
>
Jesus appeared to up to 500 people after his resurrection and ascention.
He
appeared to Paul and converted him. So how do YOU know Jesus never spoke
with Luke? You're just speculating about something we don't know about
specifically.
> What did Jesus tell you??
>
> Matthew 15: 24 He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of
Israel."
>
> Did you see any gentiles mentioned there??
>
> I don't.
>
This is correct. The Covenant for the Jews continue until the end of the
"70th week." Jesus did not preach to the gentiles in the 1st century.
But
after 36 CE Peter was told to begin to preach to the gentiles. Jesus
himself was just sent to the lost sheep of Israel. But after 36 CE, after
Jesus was gone, the message would include the gentiles!
> Smile.
>
Bigger smile.
Lars
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